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Re: Linkage between Bhagvad Geeta and Mahabharat: A Case Study



Ram Chandran <CHANDRA2%ERS.BITNET@VTBIT.CC.VT.EDU> wrote:
 >
 >Linkage between Geeta and Mahabharat: A Case study of
 >Concluding Verses (69 to 72) on Stithaprajna (Chapter 2)
 >
 >No English translation of Sanskrit verses in Geeta can ever provide
 >us a full comprehension of Geeta.  Subtle messages in Geeta require
 >background knowledge on our scriptures!

Oh I don't know!!  Are you trying to tell me that there is no translation, or
no one capable of translating the Geeta?  This statement reminds me of the
conversations I used to have on CompuServe years ago with the rabid Islamic
fundamentalists.  They also claim that unless the Quran is read in Arabic,
there is no way it could be understood.  It all smacks a little bit of
one-upmanship to me.

You seem to be implying that all the great teachers of the past were incapable
of spreading the message of the Geeta.  If the English language is incapable of
expressing the full comprehension of the Geeta, what do you say about the
Hindi, Tamil, Kannada, and so on, translations?  According to your statement,
they would also have to be deficient in this area and therefore of no import.

Are you trying to tell me that all the great teachers who have made translation
available to us had no background knowledge of the scriptures?  Are you trying
to imply that there is no one today, especially outside of India, who is able
to understand the full import of the Geeta?  Are you also trying to imply that
there is no one today, especially outside of India, who is able to understand
the full background knowledge of the scriptures?

How elitist can you get!?

R

All spelling mistakes are of my own invention.



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