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Re: Present
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To: srh@rbhatnagar.csm.uc.edu
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Subject: Re: Present
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From: Sankar Jayanarayanan <kartik@eng.auburn.edu>
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Date: Fri, 29 Mar 1996 18:16:50 -0600 (CST)
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Resent-Date: Tue, 2 Apr 1996 03:44:35 -0500 (EST)
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Resent-From: SRH Editor <srh@rbhatnagar.csm.uc.edu>
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Resent-Message-Id: <Pine.SUN.3.91.960402034435.12497F@rbhatnagar>
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Resent-To: Ajay Shah <ajay>
> How can time not be subject to sense perception? Otherwise how will you know
> that something such as time exists?
Which sense organ perceives time as such? Time is _never_ perceived by _any_
sense organ.
I don't remember much, but perhaps someone could shed more light on this--
Kant argues that since time as such is not perceived by the sense organs, it is
apriori, `already in the mind'. Time is a "mode" of perception (hey, I'm
just using words without giving any meaning :-))
-Kartik
