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Re: Present
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To: srh@rbhatnagar.csm.uc.edu (srh)
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Subject: Re: Present
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From: Ramakrishnan Balasubramanian <rbalasub@ecn.purdue.edu>
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Date: Tue, 2 Apr 1996 10:34:47 -0500 (EST)
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Cc: kartik@eng.auburn.edu (Sankar Jayanarayanan)
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Resent-Date: Tue, 2 Apr 1996 22:02:07 -0500 (EST)
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Resent-From: SRH Editor <srh@rbhatnagar.csm.uc.edu>
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Resent-Message-Id: <Pine.SUN.3.91.960402220207.13576F@rbhatnagar>
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Resent-To: Ajay Shah <ajay>
sankar Jayanarayanan <kartik@eng.auburn.edu> wrote:
> > How can time not be subject to sense perception? Otherwise how will you know
> > that something such as time exists?
>
> Which sense organ perceives time as such? Time is _never_ perceived by _any_
> sense organ.
Sorry for the slightly unclear statement, however you should have seen it in
the light of my whole post. I know that there is no organ X which measures
time. The point was that when the mind is inactive there is no perception of
time. The perception of time, when there is a perception, is always indirect. I
beleive I wrote in my post that one does not perceive time in deep sleep. So
without the mind there is no time. Similarly in a dream do you not feel the
passing of time? It's only the creation of your mind, since it's not perceived
by anyone outside your dream. Elementary :-).
Ramakrishnan.
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