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Re: ARTICLE : Bhagavata and Padma Puranas (was Re: REQUEST : What is VEDANTA...)
Sankar Jayanarayanan <kartik@Eng.Auburn.EDU> wrote in article
<ghenDxxtIt.1ID@netcom.com>...
>
> 1) If there is something important in the Vedas not to be found in the
Puranas:
> the puranas are surely a poor substitute for the Vedas, since it
misses its
> very purpose - that of capturing the essence of the Vedas.
Whether or not there is something valuable in the Vedas that is not in the
Puraanas is arguable. The Puraanas are supposed to explain the essence of
the Vedas, and the Bhaagavatam is the best in this regard.
> 2) If there is nothing important in the Vedas that isn't in the Puranas:
>
> (i) it makes *no sense* to bar a section of the society (viz.
shudras) from
> learning something *unimportant*.
>
> (ii) there would be very little to be gained by studying the Vedas
instead
> of the Puranas (which is not the case).
The Vedas are written in different form of Sanskrit which would make them
difficult if not impossible for anyone other than a qualified twice-born to
study. Furthermore, the Vedas contain much karma-kanda material which
people in the lower modes (like yours truly) would probably misuse.
The Puraanas do away with much of the ritual and concentrate on uplifiting
people in various modes towards the platform of pure goodness. They are
also in a form of Sanskrit that is less ambiguous.
> If Vyasa wrote the Srimad Bhagavatam and the Padma purana, he must have
been
> a Tamilian :-).
Oh boy, here we go again...
> No, I'm not kidding! The Bhagavatam contains a LOT of material which is
> *definitely* written by a Tamilian!
["evidence" deleted]
So, let me guess this straight. Your logic is that since it mentions
geographical locations in South India, it obviously must be by a South
Indian author?
What about the mention of Hastinapur, Dwaaraka and the Ganga river? Why
doesn't the mention of these North Indian locations merit consideration in
your analysis?
But even assuming that only South Indian places were referred to, and not
North Indian locations or locations in higher or lower planetary systems
(which is the case), let us examine the obvious flaw in your logic by means
of a hypothetical situation.
Let's just say I am an historian from Boston, and I am writing a history on
Mexico. Naturally, only Mexican cities, towns, and rivers are going to be
mentioned.
Now, if 300 years later someone finds my book but does not have any other
information about me, how logical would it be for him to ignore the "about
the author" part on the inside front cover and claim that I must have been
a Mexican?
> I got these from a book on the Bhagavatam - don't remember which one -
and the
> author says,"These passages seem to have been written by someone who was
proud
> of the southern region".
I hope this person does not consider himself to be a scholar. I would
suggest that he call his alma mater up and ask for his money back...
[rest of "evidence" deleted, as it is based on the same fallacies]
regards,
-- Krishna
