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Re: REQUEST : Partholan, Indian & Celtic?





aubergine <delash@cs.man.ac.uk> wrote in article
<ghenDzotv2.12s@netcom.com>...
> Okay, you suggest that the movement was from outside in.
> 

Correction, the preponderence of the evidence suggests this.  As I
appointed out this is _all_ speculation though as there are few hard facts.
 Personally, I have no big feelings on the matter one way or the other.  I
don't feel it impacts me or the practice of my religion or culture at all.

 
> But don't you think that it is probable that there could have been
> movement from in to outside? 
> 

Yes it's possible.  There's no reason to suppose there was one big movement
and then everyone stopped moving.  Howevever two reasons are usually given
to suggest movement into India.  One, the distribution of the Indo-Aryan
language group.  These languages are clustered more to the West.  Then
there is the evidence from the Vedas which seems to suggest an eastward
progression.  

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